QuestionFebruary 1, 2026

Which of the following would be treating someone as a means, according to Kant Asking the person to lend me some money and they do it Forcing the person to lend me some money Deceiving the person into lending me some money All of the above

Which of the following would be treating someone as a means, according to Kant Asking the person to lend me some money and they do it Forcing the person to lend me some money Deceiving the person into lending me some money All of the above
Which of the following would be treating someone as a means, according to Kant
Asking the person to lend me some money and they do it
Forcing the person to lend me some money
Deceiving the person into lending me some money
All of the above

Solution
4.0(216 votes)

Answer

Forcing the person to lend me some money Deceiving the person into lending me some money Explanation According to Kant, treating someone merely as a means involves using them for your purpose without respecting their autonomy or informed consent. Forcing or deceiving violates this, while simply asking them and they agree freely does not.

Explanation

According to Kant, treating someone merely as a means involves using them for your purpose without respecting their autonomy or informed consent. Forcing or deceiving violates this, while simply asking them and they agree freely does not.
Click to rate:

Similar Questions